Assault rifle ban will fail without objective definitions because...

Discussion in 'Gun Control' started by modernpaladin, Aug 9, 2019.

  1. CourtJester

    CourtJester Well-Known Member

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    No during the Revolutionary War America had a Well Organized Militia.
     
  2. Toggle Almendro

    Toggle Almendro Well-Known Member

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    Why? Current regulations are clearly sufficient. I am not aware of any cases where a legally-registered assault rifle has ever been used in a crime.


    Not when it is being applied to ordinary weapons.
     
  3. Toggle Almendro

    Toggle Almendro Well-Known Member

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    That is incorrect. During the Revolutionary War, America had a standing army.
     
  4. Toggle Almendro

    Toggle Almendro Well-Known Member

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    Australia abolished their freedom. And for no good reason.
     
  5. CourtJester

    CourtJester Well-Known Member

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    Obviously you have no idea what a standing army actually means.
     
  6. Toggle Almendro

    Toggle Almendro Well-Known Member

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    No, I understand quite well.

    I should clarify my previous reply though. It could be taken as a claim that we didn't have a militia. That's not what I meant. We did have a militia. But we had a standing army during the Revolutionary War in addition to having a militia.
     
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  7. Xenamnes

    Xenamnes Banned

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    Pray tell, if certain firearms should be prohibited from private ownership, based on the belief that they can be used for no purpose other than killing far too many individuals in far too short of a time, what possible use could government employees have, for having unrestricted access to the exact same certain firearms? What possible need could the government have to possessing the exclusive ability to kill so many individuals in such a short amount of time?
     
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  8. An Taibhse

    An Taibhse Well-Known Member

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    Does anyone have greater rights because they are LE under the Constitution? Are individuals in LE or Government not equal under the law?

    As for private citizen not being the first responders, that depends on how you define first response and what ‘response’. By definition private citizens (and sometimes LE) are already present in a mass shooting. As often as not, they provide assistance to the wounded. But, as many mass shootings occurs in ‘gun free zones’ few are armed to initiate a defense against an active shooter. Yet, as acknowledged by the FBI, armed citizens have stopped or mitigated the number of potential casualties.

    https://crimeresearch.org/2018/09/n...t-holders-but-misses-at-least-half-the-cases/

    I often hear from GCAs that anyone owning a gun is a threat and may use it to kill someone. Applying the same set of logic, any citizen successfully using a gun in self defense may have prevented a mass shooting.
     
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  9. CourtJester

    CourtJester Well-Known Member

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    There are a few cases where armed citizens have perhaps prevented killings. There are a lot more cases where armed citizens have done the killings.
     
  10. CourtJester

    CourtJester Well-Known Member

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    The military are government employees. Any more questions?
     
  11. CourtJester

    CourtJester Well-Known Member

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  12. Reality

    Reality Well-Known Member

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  13. An Taibhse

    An Taibhse Well-Known Member

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    who work for the People.
     
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  14. An Taibhse

    An Taibhse Well-Known Member

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    Now that is funny...great meaningless logic there.
     
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  15. Xenamnes

    Xenamnes Banned

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    And such are the actions of individuals who subscribe to the mentality of a criminal. Their are not actions that are protected or encouraged by the second amendment of the united states constitution. Nor should their actions be used as grounds for attempting to restrict the constitutional rights of others.
     
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  16. Xenamnes

    Xenamnes Banned

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    The military possesses access to fully-automatic firearms, and other assorted hardware that is simply not available to the general public, often times because the public does not possess the costly motor vehicles necessary for mounting said hardware on.

    The discussion at hand pertains exclusively to semi-automatic firearms, that no military in the world makes use of, and which are marketed exclusively to the private civilian populace. The two are not, in any fashion, similar to or interchangeable with one another.

    Pray tell, why is such a simple concept ultimately proving to be so overwhelming difficult to comprehend?
     
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  17. An Taibhse

    An Taibhse Well-Known Member

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    Defending ignorance is demanding.
     
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  18. Turtledude

    Turtledude Well-Known Member Donor

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    you are incorrect and you fail to understand the doctrine of estoppel. Civilian police do not have any special niche in our constitution. And yes, rarely are police the first ones to encounter a violent criminal
     
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  19. Turtledude

    Turtledude Well-Known Member Donor

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    yeah our servants.
     
  20. Toggle Almendro

    Toggle Almendro Well-Known Member

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  21. CourtJester

    CourtJester Well-Known Member

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    Except that isn’t a standing army.
     
  22. CourtJester

    CourtJester Well-Known Member

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    why don’t you explain how the doctrine of estoppel necessitates civilians having the same weapons as the police.
     
  23. CourtJester

    CourtJester Well-Known Member

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    I am not the person who claimed that civilians should have the same weapons as government employees. I just pointed out the silliness of the statement.

    Try to follow the discussion and respond appropriatly.
     
  24. CourtJester

    CourtJester Well-Known Member

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    Well do let us know how you plan to determine who has a criminal mentality and who does not. Once you come up with that bit of science we can then incarcerate the, before they can commit their first crime.
     
  25. CourtJester

    CourtJester Well-Known Member

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    So in your opinion the fact that guns cost way more lives than they save is meaningless logic. Care to elucidate on your obviously flawed opinion.
     

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