Minneapolis officer's attorney alleges George Floyd overdosed on fentanyl, says charges should be dr

~ And this is really the bottom line.

 

I know to knock someone out you have to block BOTH sides, a knee to just one side won't do it.

 

Looks like this officer was the victim of cancel culture for a murder he didnt commit.

Smh.

 

I believe so.

 

"taken through consumption" is a non medical phrase.

Again, he was already overdosing according to the people in the vehicle with him.

Fentanyl can be absorbed transbuccaly, sub lingually, and even intranasally.

All are far faster in onset than oral administration.

 

Choke holds cause a loss of consciousness within seconds, not 8 minutes later.

 

Well they are criminal charges which means at trial there would need to be a unanimous jury.

Its a pretty high bar, and on top of that there is quite a bit of reasonable doubt.

 

Legally speaking, one can be charged with murder or manslaughter if it was their own reckless behavior hat killed someone else. There are multiple degrees of murder, some of which include killing someone without the intent to kill them. The most common example would be when someone kills someone else while doing something reckless in their vehicle. One could argue that holding your knee to someone's neck while they plead with you that they cannot breath is another example of said reckless behavior that could warrant a conviction, but that's up to the court to decide

 

We already know from the autopsy that he did not overdose. None of the claims that he overdosed come from a medical source

 

I feel sorry for this officer. He was the victim of the mob, attacking him for a murder he didnt commit.

3x the lethal dose.

This guy killed himself.

 

If someone says they can't breath, get your ****** knee off of their neck so as not allow for any confusion. See how that works?

 

Nah, because then they regain control even if only a little.

This poor officer, protecting our streets from evil people like Floyd, unjustly mobbed down.

 

He had lethal levels of opiates in his system as well as meth, he had covid, and he had major heart blockages.

 

~ Based on their history as reported it appears that these police officers should have been off the force years ago. That being said I believe the verdict will come down to excessive use of force with possible negligence. The defence attorneys will have to work diligently on this case.
We shall see ...

{ Notice these situations always happen in Democrat run cities }

 

He had fentanyl in his system(which would at the very least slow down one's breathing), however he did not overdose from the drug. Intoxication does not mean overdose, it simply means the drug is actively in your system. While fentanyl was listed as a contributing factor, the cause of death according to the autopsy was "cardiopulmonary arrest complicating law enforcement subdual, restraint, and neck compression"

 

Oh lord...send in the murderous Nazi goon squad cops to protect us from those counterfeit $20.00 bills.

 

Actually no in regards to the 'tough pill to swallow'. The SJW types who INSTANTLY find these police officers guilty of murder months before the trial even happens seem to perform some sort of auto memory flush when it turns out later on that they were not actually murderers.

This is why we never seem to get any of them returning after the fact to admit how utterly wrong they were in regards to -- say -- 'the Gentle Giant' of Ferguson and Freddie Gray and several other famous cases during the Obama administration years in which radical leftists immediately began the process of violently rioting AS the justice system was already in motion; and then it is discovered that no murder happened. It's not a tough pill for them to swallow, because most of them apparently refuse to do so at all.

 

So the experts don't know what they are talking about, we should just take your word for it.

 

Lethal dosage is relative to the subject's body, it's kind of like how different people have different levels of tolerance for alcohol. The question is was George Floyd experiencing an overdose from fetanyl or any other drug. We know from his autopsy that he in fact did not overdose

That's not my opinion, those are the results from the autopsy

 

He didn't have him in a choke hold.

 

Sigh! You'd think that after the leftist debacle that most of the homocide events police officers were accused of during the Obama years that people would learn what is MEANT by homocide in an autopsy: a homicide may result from accidental, reckless, or negligent acts even if there is no intent to cause harm.

It does not mean MURDER . . . it simply means that the thug in question did not die from old age. Remember the 'Gentle Giant' of Ferguson and Freddie Gray? They were also deemed to have been homocides and yet after the trials were NOT deemed to have been murders despite the tradition of radical leftists when it came to burning down cities and looting and mugging and murdering in the name of . . . justice.

 

The reality is, Floyd killed himself with drugs. The truth is out now.

This officer should walk.

 

One can only hope that Barack Obama will again get involved in an effort to pollute a potential jury pool and intimidate a sitting judge by bellowing, "If I had a son he would look like Floyd."

 

He died of cardiac arrest as a result of drug intoxication combined with underlying heart problems. That is a fact.

 

That's because Floyd didn't really matter to them. We had a leftist or two on this board about two weeks before the Floyd event happened trying to turn everything into an example of White cops hating on Black suspects. Thus we knew that the traditional riot season prepatory to kicking off a Dem Party presidential convention had arrived . . . and THAT was what it was really all about. ANYTHING that could have been construed as an EVIL White cop deliberately harming an INNOCENT Black would have done equally well for their political purposes.