Are there logical fallacies in Christianity?

Discussion in 'Debates & Contests' started by usfan, Mar 12, 2019.

  1. Mr_Truth

    Mr_Truth Well-Known Member

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    ^ thanks for validating my post
     
  2. delade

    delade Well-Known Member

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    I will accept a slight challenge.

    Christianity... Before you refute this argument, are all to be considered as Christians or only a few?
    In other words, is Christianity, which you have a desire to 'sharpen' a world wide faith or a faith limited to specifics??


    I will add in a few points from which you can refute.


    Is the language spoken in Syria, for example, the same as the language we are conversing typographically in, the same?

    So would the Christianity practiced and observed in Syria be the same as the Christianity practised and observed by 'English' speakers??


    Is practiced spelled practiced or practised?? And from which English speaking 'region"??


    Should the founding 'Christians' be the providers to the new born Christians or should the new born/babe Christians be the providers for the 'founding' Christians??
     
    Last edited: Oct 7, 2019
  3. delade

    delade Well-Known Member

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    If The Apostle Paul 'oversaw' the Churches in the 'regions' he was 'over' as, is The Apostle Paul the ONLY 'evangel' which evangelized outside of Y'srael???


    And if 'Christianity' began within the Churches which The Apostle Paul was overseer as, are all believers considered to be of those regional Churches; namely being 'overseen' by The Apostle Paul??


    Although not in Scriptures, it is reported that Thomas was 'evangel' to India.


    And so the question to which refutation is being asked for....

    What IS Christianity in the first place?


    If khris-tee-an-os', or, Χριστιανός, οῦ, ὁ, depending on 'gender', I suppose, is the Greek way of referring to the 'first' 'Christians' there was, but not yet probably even in the original 'language' which was spoken by the first 'Christians', seeing they lived in Antioch in Syria or very nearby; and seeing that Syria more probably NOT than so, DID NOT speak fluent 'Greek', what were 'they' truly called other than the Greek Χριστιανός, οῦ, ὁ, khris-tee-an-os', and what WAS their OWN definition of that 'term' which us rendered in Greek as Christianos??
     
    Last edited: Oct 8, 2019
  4. delade

    delade Well-Known Member

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    Which was/is rendered in Greek as Christianos from where we now have the term 'Christian'.

    Yet the first 'Christians' more probably NOT than so, speaking Greek.

    And if you'd like to add more salt to the open sore, arguing over non English beginnings in English as IF they were could be the MORE necessary refutation being needed.



    William the First, or otherwise known as, William the Conqueror, was the 'first' King of the 'current' England?? If true, even he did not speak today's English.
     
    Last edited: Oct 8, 2019
  5. Distraff

    Distraff Well-Known Member

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    Christianity is composed Christian, many of them, not a few.

    I don't have the desire to sharpen anything. Christianity is a world-wide faith and isn't limited to specifics.

    No, they are not.

    The overall general theory of Christianity should be the same in both places. However some of the specific rules might need to be different from place to place to deal with their individual issues.

    Its spelled practised in British english when used as a verb. In all other cases its practiced. Depends on the area you live.


    It should be an exchange. People should provide to each other.
     
  6. Robert E Allen

    Robert E Allen Well-Known Member

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    You cannot have a logical discussion about Christianity because Christianity is based on things the human brain in it's natural state cannot understand. They are only understood with spiritual enlightenment.
     
  7. Farnsworth

    Farnsworth Member

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    Yes, because formal logic is itself a fallacy; at the end of the day, it's just an exercise in circular reasoning, and it remains such no matter how wide on makes the circle. Empiricism is built on a moral philosophy, not some absolute factual premise; 'facts' are only as reliable as the honesty of those who pretend to 'observe them.

    As we know from recent studies of doctoral theses, a significant percentage of them use knowingly faked data, so there is no reason to assume there is any binding morality among alleged 'rationalists' as a group, either. We also know over half of Ph.D's suffer from mental illnesses as well, assuming those who collected this data aren't faking theirs.
     
    Last edited: Jan 4, 2020
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  8. pol meister

    pol meister Well-Known Member

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    If so, what does it matter?

    Biblical principle #1: A tree is known by the fruit it bears. So whatever Hitler was or wasn't, did or didn't do, it doesn't change the fundamental tenets of Christianity. Only one man can be looked at as the embodiment of Christianity, and that is Christ himself.
     
    Last edited: Jan 5, 2020
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  9. K9Buck

    K9Buck Active Member

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    There probably wasn't a single politician in a western society that could have been elected to an office had they not proclaimed to be a "Christian". Even in 2008 Obama felt it necessary to proclaim himself as a Christian when the reality is that he's probably an atheist.
     
  10. K9Buck

    K9Buck Active Member

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    Hitler was a "Christian" like Bill Clinton and Donald Trump are faithful in marriage. LOL.
     
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  11. K9Buck

    K9Buck Active Member

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    Hitler never received a majority of popular vote in German elections. The majority of Germans did not know about the Holocaust until after the war. To claim that German Christians wanted all the Jews dead is a wild claim that cannot be substantiated.
     
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