No. You have disingenuously misconstrued it. No. It uses the correct definition, not your absurdly broad and incorrect one. But unlike you, it does so correctly. But of incomparably greater value than anything you have said, because it describes the primary relationship of housing markets to land value. Again, that's just false. It will do as long as you can't answer it and therefore feel you have to make $#!+ up about it.