“The UK is Never Going to be White Again”

So, we agree that IQ scores, and PISA scores tend to be higher in the North, because of greater demand on intellect during the Ice Age?

Italians are genetically much more Middle Eastern, they're not really White people, even if they mixed with White.

 

It's primarily due to Hispanic immigration to the US and the percentages of black and Asians are almost unchanged over the period 1997-2010. Britain has Eastern European migrants instead of Hispanic migrants and the number of Eastern Europeans in the UK has surpassed that of British Indians in 2015, who used to be the largest ethnic minority group.

 

The situation is pretty bad in the U.S.A for Whites.

I know my neighborhood went from 95% White in the 1990's to now 75% White.

I live in the suburbs.

But, the Hispanics want to live in the suburbs too, so they put multiple Hispanics into a house designed for a single family.

 

I am told the koolaid is delicious tho.

 

No, I was summarizing a few more fundamental characteristics of the rise of European Civilization and its ascendancy over the rest of the world. Or as you know it more liberal BS.

 

Last I looked, homo sapiens sapiens does not have any subspecies and is the only surviving homo species in the entire genus.

 

No sure but I don't think dogs do, either, but Chihuahuas are very different than Great Danes. Call it what you will but there are very distinct groups of human beings that surely had a common ancestor some 10,000 years ago.

 

It is what it is and you're alive and enjoying life because of European Civilization. Be more grateful.

 

the Nazis made believe it was an "act of war", and used it as an excuse to murder Jews

 

Yes, they did put a lot of (communist) Jews in camps, in order to deport them to Israël, or possibly Madagascar after they would have won the war.

But murder them? No.

 

I read your link, it repeats the lie that the Jews declared war on Germany, they simply did not, there was a perfectly legal economic boycott organised by some jews. Anything more is simply a lie and an example of historic revisionism. I am well aware of the economic situation in Germany at the time, perhaps you might like to explain the reasons for it, you could start with the French occupation of the Ruhr in 1925 and the occupation of the Rhineland until 1935. If you want to talk about the economic problems of the Weimar Republic then start a thread to discuss it, but do not keep repeating the lie that "the Jews declared war on Germany" it is BS nothing else.

 

Perfectly legal?

You are well aware of the economic situation of Germany at the time..? Well, I think you aren't.

In order to get a good understand of what Germany looked like during the 'Weimar-republic' from 1918 - 1933 you'll have to take a look at this:

[video=youtube;hIb413cZvZM]https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=hIb413cZvZM[/video]

To declare a boycott after such a period is definately not legal.

 

You are now simply mischaracterizing my posts. Unless you can show where I said that your point is meaningless. I said that it was headlines at the time. I also posted a link that provided evidence to that point. Both are quite different than stating that directly.

I also noticed you did not refute anything from the link. I am use to this.

 

Why what was not legal about it?

 

I absolutely do refute the link, the link states that the Jews declared war on Germany, that is a lie. It uses as its source a tabloid English newspaper. Germanys problems at the time were caused amongst other things by industrialists like Stinnes who used hyperinflation to own a business empire bigger than the rest of the German economy.

 

That is hardly fair. Read the link again and check back.

 

Germany had been taken over by Zionist Jews on all positions in power: banking, politics, court and media, and had been brought to the brink of destruction.

When Hitler came to power, he decided to remove these Jews from their positions and step out of the international banking system by printing their own interest-free currency, which eventually made them an economic superpower within only 6 years time. An economic explosion which had never been seen before, or afterwards... So the boycott-move of "World Jewry" was illegal, to meddle with Germany's internal affairs.

 

I have read the link,and I have studied the Wiemar Republic and the reasons for its problems, but lets look at what the Nazi's were saying about Jews in 1928!

The Jew has no interest in solving Germany’s fateful questions. He cannot, indeed. He lives because they are unresolved. Were the German people to become a united community with freedom to act in the world, the Jew would have no place among us. He holds the trump cards when a people lives under domestic and foreign slavery, not when it is free, industrious, self-confident, and determined. The Jew caused our misery and lives from it today.
http://research.calvin.edu/german-propaganda-archive/angrif17.htm

Now explain to me why any Jew should want to do business with a party that holds those opinions. Is it not perfectly reasonable that international jewery would organise a boycott against such people.

 

Under what international law? If I decide I do not want to do business with you because of your political ideology that is my right, learn it, live with it and stop whining about it.

 

Listen.. Germany was still completely bankrupt and in the gutter when Hitler came to power in 1933.

For World Jewry (which is super-powerful) to immediately declare a boycott on Germany in order to starve the Germans to death to get what they want (Hitler out of power) at that time in order to meddle with Germany's internal affairs is illegal.

What makes you think their move was legal?

 

You have not refuted the facts at all and have now changed the subject to anti-Semitism. Yes, Germany was anti-Semitic, great find.

Ironically, we have been discussing reasons for anti-Semitism and your article hits on some very interesting points. We haven't even gotten into their business dealings, or at least the worlds perception of them.

Thanks for posting.

 

Would you mind explaining this to a few people on the BDS threads?

 

International law, there is no obligation that people must trade with others because they got themselves in a mess. Whining about the plight of the Germans because they lost WW1 and had it tough does not make it a legal obligation to help them. So some Jews did not want to help Germany that is their right, it is not an act of war or a declaration of war. Sick of whinging Nazis, poor me.

 

Yes I have, there was no Declaration of War by The Jews on Germany, fact.

I have not brought up antisemitism, I brought up what the Nazis threatened to do to the Jews in 1928, you are whinging because in 1933 some Jews said (*)(*)(*)(*) you to the Nazis.

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I have done frequently, before you joined this forum, but let us be honest, not one Zionist has ever claimed an economic boycott is an act of war to me, or a declaration of war.

 

The Germans didn't lose WW I, they got sold out... matter of fact, no enemy soldier ever set boot on German ground.

Another fact, in 1916 the Germans were winning the war, until the Zionists (who first were on German side) decided to support the British financially and drag the US into the war, in trade for the "Balfour-agreement", which would lay their hands on Palestine, which would later become Israël.