That's not hard at all: adjective conforming to a standard; usual, typical, or expected. "it's quite normal for puppies to bolt their food
This doesn't address the claim made. This just shows figures for gun owners vs non gun owners. You'd need to present a graphic showing how many of the 30% in that chart own multiple firearms, and how many own 1 or 2.
More importantly, what % LIED about not owning a gun....some goober's come polling me about how many guns I own and the answer is none and never did..... why I don't trust polls or studies that rely on people's say-so.
That's false. MJ - "Using the dictionary definition, it's not normal for people to own multiple firearms." @TedintheShed - "Yes, it is." Graph shows that 69% of people do NOT own a gun. 69% is a larger number than 30% so it is true that it's NOT normal for people to own firearms. It's irrelevant if a gun owner has 1 or 1,000 weapons because that demographic falls within the 30%.
You wouldn't believe the number of people that think they have to answer a question just because it's asked. Why? I do not know.
In my younger years when I was a hunter and before I decided to give it up I had a total of four guns which did a good job of covering all the basis. They were - Ithica 12 ga. shotgun, Browning .22 automatic rifle, Winchester 30-30 model 94, Mannlicher Schoenaur .270. Today I have one Ruger .380 LCP.
Maybe should have kept them, they'd bring a pretty penny nowadays. But then I've let some go in the past that I kick myself now for....too bad we can't see the future.
We don't usually use "normal" to differentiate sexuality or race because of the conforming qualifier.
You were using percentages to define "normal". Statistically, "normal" covers 2 standard deviations on other side of the mean, or about 95.45% of the population. People who own multiple guns fall within that range.
If you read my responses in order, you will see that I asked for a definition of "normal" exactly for the reason your comment illustrates. The number of weapons is irrelevant because more people do NOT own guns than do own guns. According to the definition posted, "conforming to a standard; usual, typical, or expected" it is NOT "normal" for people to own firearms.
Why is a dictionary definition more acceptable than the scientifically determined "normal" determined by statistics? Where does the definition say that "typical or expected" requires a simple majority?
Words are defined by the society in which they are used. I specifically asked for the OP's definition of "normal" to put his/her post in context. So, I didn't make the qualifier here. I just used the given definition to form my response. With that said, I believe it's unhelpful to use words like "normal" because its opposite means "abnormal" (negative connotation). Within the context of gun ownership, it is typical or common for the average American citizen to NOT own a gun (which is clear from the graph).
You supplied the definition of "normal" in this thread. You may think the majority are gun owners but that's inaccurate.
It's not typical or common to be married, either, if ">50%" is your criteria. The meme stated "normal", and statistically, gun ownership is "normal". From the dictionary, since you like that source: "belonging to or shared by two or more individuals or things or by all members of a group" https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/common In Caetano v Massachusetts, SCOTUS defined "common" as "hundreds of thousands".
I'm really unclear on why this is a sticking point. More people do NOT own guns than do own them. Use whatever adjective you want (ie. normal, typical, common, etc.). The bottom line is the MAJORITY do not own guns.
but that isn't what is being compared. you are comparing gun owners to non gun owners. He said it is normal for gun owners to own multiple weapons. A graph would need to be presented showing how many gun owners own multiple guns.