Multiplying Two Negative Numbers: Here Is the Logic

Discussion in 'Science' started by KAMALAYKA, Feb 19, 2013.

  1. KAMALAYKA

    KAMALAYKA Banned

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    I volunteer as a math tutor on the side. One of the questions I am frequently asked is this:

    Why do you get a positive number when multiplying two negative numbers?

    Well, allow me to settle it once and for all!

    If we can agree that a negative number is just a positive number multiplied by -1, then we can always write the product of two negative numbers this way:

    (-a)(-b) = (-1)(a)(-1)(b) = (-1)(-1)ab

    For example,

    -2 * -3 = (-1)(2)(-1)(3)

    = (-1)(-1)(2)(3)

    = (-1)(-1) * 6

    So the real question is,

    (-1)(-1) = ?

    and the answer is that the following convention has been adopted:

    (-1)(-1) = +1

    This convention has been adopted for the simple reason that any other convention would cause something to break.

    For example, if we adopted the convention that (-1)(-1) = -1, the distributive property of multiplication wouldn't work for negative numbers:

    (-1)(1 + -1) = (-1)(1) + (-1)(-1)

    (-1)(0) = -1 + -1

    0 = -2

    As Sherlock Holmes observed, "When you have excluded the impossible, whatever remains, however improbable, must be the truth."

    Since everything except +1 can be excluded as impossible, it follows that, however improbable it seems, (-1)(-1) = +1.
     
  2. NYCmitch25

    NYCmitch25 New Member

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    Example: You owe 3 people $5 each. So you are "Negative 15" (3 × -$5 = -$15).

    They then say "we like you so much we forgive the debt" ... you have just had 3 subtractions of -5, so it is like you have added $15 (-3 × -$5 = +$15).

    You now have no debt: -$15 + $15 = $0
     
  3. PrometheusBound

    PrometheusBound New Member

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    That's addition. The best explanation I found was on perspectives.com in the Science section, page 2, posted by "thoughtless" April 11, 2012. Think of a train where west of the station is positive; its position two hours ago is minus 2. I can't repeat it here, but it is clearly multiplication of two negatives.
     
  4. TortoiseDream

    TortoiseDream Active Member

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    Actually it can be proven very easily in any ring.

    First, we can prove that (-1)*x = -x. If we add x to (-1)*x, we should get 0. Indeed using the distributive rule, x+(-1)*x = 1*x+(-1)*x = (1+(-1))*x = 0*x = 0.

    Then you need to show -(-1) = 1. Well, -1+1=0, so 1 is the additive inverse of (-1), i.e. -(-1) = 1. (This of course holds for any x).

    Thus, using our two derived rules, (-1)*(-1) = -(-1) = 1.
     
  5. Ctrl

    Ctrl Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    I tend to go to English... as chances are if you are learning this, your understanding of the language is better than that of algebra...

    "You can't NOT look" = "You HAVE TO look"

    It is the opposite, of opposite. Two negatives result in a positive in the same way when multiplying... for sake of logic.

    That is at least an easier way perhaps to get it across to someone young.
     
  6. KAMALAYKA

    KAMALAYKA Banned

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    The problem with algebra education is that a rigorous axiomatic approach isn't taught. Instead of fostering logic, kids are told to accept something is true "just because."

    Take the Pythagorean Theorem, for example. Every kid who's ever taken a geometry class has learned to use it. But how many of them can actually show why it's true?
     

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