surplus labor value

Discussion in 'Economics & Trade' started by Guno, Jan 3, 2016.

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  1. WillReadmore

    WillReadmore Well-Known Member

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    You have a piece of a theory.

    Good!
     
  2. LafayetteBis

    LafayetteBis Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    Yes, evidently, you just can't see it.

    Mineral rights are rights that transcend surface boundaries. It is not as if you found gold on your property. It's as if you found a seam of gold that was also under your property boundary, but was the same seam on someone else's property.

    The same logic applies to oil-deposits, which are considered "communal" and not "specific" in terms of ownership. The difference in America may be due to the fact that oil was historically found (in the 19th century) under property in Pennsylvania, from which it was employed to create fuel. The notion of "personal property of mineral rights" was never challenged and so remains.

    But, that does not subtract from the fact that the notion of mineral rights being part of the common wealth of any nation is considered prime by most countries on earth - the benefits of which are shared by both the company exploiting those minerals as well as the government holding the right of ownership of said minerals.

    Besides, as the nation one day turns to other sources of energy, these oil-related mineral rights will be of lesser financial importance.
     
  3. Shangrila

    Shangrila staff Past Donor

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    Post limit thread closure

    Shangrila
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