Why do women not face any legal/social consequences for bad faith actions?

Discussion in 'Women's Rights' started by SiliconMagician, May 23, 2012.

  1. SiliconMagician

    SiliconMagician Banned

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    Lets consider two scenarios:

    Scenario A:

    Woman is trapped in an abusive relationship with a cheating male spouse. She decides to leave him. She gets half of the family wealth, the family home, and the children, plus her freedom. His reputation is publically destroyed and disgraced.

    The man is punished for his bad faith actions in the relationship.

    Scenario B:

    Woman cheats on her husband all the time and mercilessly nags him. He puts up with it out of a sense of patriarchal duty. She decides to leave him. She gets half the family wealth, the family home, the children and her freedom, and she gets her ex-husband to pay for her and her new man to have a good quality of life.

    The woman is not punished for her bad faith actions in the relationship and is in fact rewarded for those actions financially and socially.

    Could someone please explain to me why the obvious double standard here and why the woman is almost never punished legally for bad faith actions?

    Scenario B happens just as often, if not moreso than scenario A.

    So if women are almost never punished for their bad faith actions in a relationship, why shouldn't men be upset at this obvious double standard?
     
  2. Kranes56

    Kranes56 Banned

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    Doesn't this also happen to guys as well?
     
  3. SiliconMagician

    SiliconMagician Banned

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    Not really becaue the majority of men are the primary breadwinner in the household and therefore have far more to lose in a divorce.

    If the majority of breadwinners were women, it would be a different story, but that simply isn't true. Over 60% of households in America the male is still the primary earner.

    Also, most States demand that the mother automatically gets the children, unless the mother can be proven to be completely and totally unfit.

    Therefore, she still wins financially.

    The problem is women get a monetary payoff for divorce that men typically don't get.
     
  4. Kranes56

    Kranes56 Banned

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    So that doesn't answer my question. My question was, doesn't it happen to men as well?
     
  5. SiliconMagician

    SiliconMagician Banned

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    Read the Stats:

    It is obvious by statistics that most men are divorced through no fault of their own.

    Yet, even if it isn't their fault the divorce was initiated, since most of them are the primary breadwinners, they lose out financially for nothing at all other than the whims of the woman.
     
  6. Kranes56

    Kranes56 Banned

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    First, you made that claim.

    Then you had to edit your OP.
    "Scenario B happens just as often, if not moreso than scenario A."

    And now you're back to your orginal position. Now I'm a little confused as to what your stance is. Which is it?
     
  7. SiliconMagician

    SiliconMagician Banned

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    Look (*)(*)(*)(*)(*)(*) it's quite easy to understand. The law is equal in theory but the REALITY OF LIFE skews the law in the woman's favor through unintended consequences becuase teh majority of households MEN are the primary wealth earners.

    The day the majority of households are ones where women are the primary earners then you'll see exactly what I mean. All of these no fault laws will be abolished because women won't want to see MEN getting it over on women when we demand equal access to alimony payments, child support, and the demand of half of the woman's wealth being split with us.
     
  8. DorkdoltConservative

    DorkdoltConservative New Member

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    Because we live in a gynocentric society, obviously.
    I also find it revealing that the forum dictionary doesn't contain the words "gynocentrism" and "misandy".
     
  9. aussiefree2ride

    aussiefree2ride New Member

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    You should get yourself a new dictionary. According to the modern dictionary, "equality", and "double standard", have the same meaning.
     
  10. Unifier

    Unifier New Member

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    Because even though the law doesn't officially recognize it anymore and even though it is socially verboten to say it out loud, subconsciously everybody still understands that male and female are not the same thing. Women are still the weaker sex by design. And so there is an almost instinctual need to give them a little extra help overall whether the particular women in question deserves it or not. In contrast, men are subconsciously understood to be stronger by design and so they are expected to be able to "take it" even if the situation is totally unfair to them and the guy in question is getting completely screwed. They are expected to "man up" and "deal with it." Notice how women are never told to "woman up" when they get a raw deal on something.

    And I don't care how politically incorrect that is to say or how many feminists hate me for it. It is what it is.
     
  11. aussiefree2ride

    aussiefree2ride New Member

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    Only men have advanced concerning sexual equality, most women are still stuck in the twelfth centuary regarding sexism, equality, etc.
     
  12. Up On the Governor

    Up On the Governor Well-Known Member

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    Blame our retarded society. If a woman is unable to stabilize herself after leaving a relationship, she only has herself to blame. People rush into marriage and do not attain a level of financial comfort before combining lives. The man is just as deserving of the blame for that stupidity as the woman. If both parties were stable and responsible prior to marriage, it would not be so lop-sided. Unfortunately this is something you cannot change. People will always be short-sighted and dense.

    Why shouldn't you? Good question. So? Men have every right to be upset. Why not sack up and do something about it? Pre-nup.

    That is pretty bull(*)(*)(*)(*) relative to today's society. Women do not need physical strength to succeed in most careers. That is not an excuse to not provide an equal or close-to-equal income in order to be financially independent, to avoid ransacking your partner's earnings in the event of a divorce.
     
  13. IgnoranceisBliss

    IgnoranceisBliss Well-Known Member

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    Deep down our society still largely views women in this manner; I think it's residual from thousands of years of society. I see it everyday, even in a liberal college in one of the most liberal cities in the country. People are generally more willing to feel compassion towards women (particularly if they're young and attractive) than they are men. In certain cases women are given a "pass" while men are told to man up. Of course, this is countered by other situations when men get a free pass. I still think we have to admit it exists. The clearly discriminatory divorce structure in the U.S. is one of the most blatant "official" places this is evidence.
     
  14. kopa68

    kopa68 New Member

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    When did various nations give all women the right to vote? Many gave it in steps -- some locales gave the vote for local elections first, or some racial or ethnic groups were excluded until later. Often, the right to stand for election and the right to vote were given at separate times. "Full suffrage" means that all groups of women were included, and could both vote and run for any office. Vizit post:URL: http://aboutpoliticalscience.blogspot.com/2012/05/women-rights.html
     

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