man involved in car crash charged with manslaughter after woman has miscarriage

That stipulation became part of the Law of the Land in the RvW SCOTUS decision.

 

Clearly it has rights and is a human being since manslaughter can be applied when a 3rd party kills it.

Yes. It has the same protections you and I do, it's called the right to life.

 

Oh, I'm sorry that paragraph was too hard to read....but it stated clearly """" The law defines "child in utero" as "a member of the species Homo sapiens, at any stage of development, who is carried in the womb"""""


A human fetus is human (ADJECTIVE) and no one ever said different.

It is NOT a human being (NOUN) as in "person"..

 

FoxHastings said: ↑
It has a "protection"...you may call it a right to life but it has no rights until it's born.

Remember, with rights comes restrictions that we ALL have....

It's death was caused by another person.

I'm sorry you haven't been able to call the attorney general of that state and set them right yet

There is no right to life especially if one hasn't been born. If one hasn't been born one has no rights.




Now, I know you will NOT read the following but I'm going to include it anyway:

IF a fetus is granted the same rights as born persons it will ALSO have the same restrictions.

NONE of us can use another person's body to sustain our life without their consent.

That would ALSO apply to fetuses IF they are deemed "persons with rights"....so if the woman doesn't consent,, out goes the fetus....
.

 

Stupid people making stupid laws based on political agenda or religious belief is not an argument for the truth of much.

 

Yes, a fetus can be terminated, if you are asking if abortion is legal in the US, within the law and regulations.

 

Thank you. Now explain how this attains to the fetus dependent on the mother.

 

Some group of religious zealots making a law saying "its a human" does not make that claim true. Germany made laws saying that Jews were less than human ... does this make Jews less than human ?

You are committing logical fallacy - "Appeal to Authority".

 

Let's be clear on this. The fallacy is Appeal to vman12 Authority.

 

The fetus was the victim of the manslaughter, hence the charge.

 

Now who's making an "appeal to authority"?

 

You got it!

"""""""""The Unborn Victims of Violence Act of 2004 (Public Law 108-212) is a United States law which recognizes an embryo or fetus in utero as a legal victim, if they are injured or killed during the commission of any of over 60 listed federal crimes of violence. The law defines "child in utero" as "a member of the species Homo sapiens, at any stage of development, who is carried in the womb".[1]""""""""""

 

\No, it's a statement of fact concerning the law.

 

You have the same troubles as chuzlife does.

 

It is The Law that is the Authority, not you. If you were to reference Billy Graham's opinion, that would be a fallacy of appeal to authority.

 

Which is exactly what I did, and still a claim to authority.

 

YES, law is the authority.....not you

 

I have no idea what chuzlife is.

 

I'm not the one who charged him for manslaughter now am I?

 

Great.

The law says only a human being can be the victim of manslaughter.

 

The UVVA says a fetus can be a victim without being A human being.

NOTICE: I did NOT say it wasn't human.

 

Sure.

Manslaughter, however, can only be charged in the death of a human being.

 

Not defined as you want, though.

 

That's why the woman has an obligation.
It's only for 9 months.

 

The mother determines that.