Tax discrimination

Discussion in 'Budget & Taxes' started by jor, Feb 16, 2012.

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  1. danielpalos

    danielpalos Banned

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    From my perspective, it is not jealousy, but expedience since the wealthy simply have more to tax than someone in official poverty in our capital based, mixed market, political economy.

    In any case, I believe that the very wealthy have no real cause for concern, even if they paid wartime tax rates during times of war, even if only on abstractions; simply because they already have enough money to make more money than they would pay in taxes if they choose to.
     
  2. Taxpayer

    Taxpayer Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    ex·pe·di·ent adj \ik-ˈspē-dē-ənt\
    Definition of EXPEDIENT

    : characterized by concern with what is opportune; especially : governed by self-interest
     
  3. Taxpayer

    Taxpayer Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    I agree with what you said in your first sentence. But applying the rest of what you said to this discussion is misleading. I find it unjust to seize the property of those who committed no crime and unjust to feed only those who are unwilling to feed themselves.​
     
  4. Roy L

    Roy L Banned

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    It's the greed of the rich.
    No, most people want justice. But you don't. Simple.
    That's a false and absurd claim with no basis in fact.
    No, it's the nature of the greedy, privileged, parasitic rich.
    The rich pay about an order of magnitude more taxes than the poor -- but two orders of magnitude more benefit from government.
    That is a bald falsehood.
    The greed of the rich is insatiable, as proved by the fact that they have taken trillions from taxpayers since the crisis in 2008, actually increasing their wealth, while ordinary working people have lost ground. Watch "Inside Job" and try to get some kind of clue.
     
  5. Roy L

    Roy L Banned

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    Ah, I see. So, in what you are no doubt pleased to call your "mind," all the greedy, idle, privileged, parasitic rich have to do to make their thievery "just" is buy enough politicians to make it "not a crime" to steal from the productive by owning unjust privileges. I.e., as the slave owners of the antebellum South had "committed no crime" by owning slaves and forcibly compelling them to labor without wages, you would find it "unjust" for government to "seize" their "property" by emancipating the slaves.

    Somehow, I kinda figured it'd be something like that.
    That would be the greedy, idle, privileged, parasitic rich. Almost all the poor are willing to feed themselves. They are just deprived of the opportunity to do so by the rich who own those opportunities.
     
  6. danielpalos

    danielpalos Banned

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    Special pleading much?

     
  7. Meta777

    Meta777 Moderator Staff Member

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    I agree with that other stuff you wrote, but how is it false to claim that the rich pay the majority of income tax?
    Certainly, the income tax is not the only tax that people pay, and certainly, as a percentage of wealth, the richest in America pay a lot less.
    But last time I checked, as an absolute value, and even as a percentage of personal income, the rich did pay the majority of income taxes.
    Are you factoring in benefits from the government that are not recorded as income?

    -Meta
     
  8. Meta777

    Meta777 Moderator Staff Member

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    How is it misleading?

    It is the law that decides what a crime is, and if one goes against the law, say by not voluntarily giving up government created currency,
    then they are generally committing a crime, though that's not necessarily to say that the law is always right, wouldn't you agree?

    What do you mean by this?

    -Meta
     
  9. Taxpayer

    Taxpayer Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    Because the justification you offer for discrimination is a persons "participation in some damaging action" or that they are criminals. I don't feel either of those exceptions applies to folks who simply have a higher income than their neighbor. Since those exceptions don't seem to apply, I find it misleading to use them as justification in this discussion.​
     
  10. Taxpayer

    Taxpayer Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    The discrimination is in deciding who must give up more wealth. You can't argue that you selected folks for this sacrifice based on their response to being selected.

    Also, that the government created the currency is irrelevant. The currency is simply a public marker, it's generic IOUs for the value that exchanged for it. When you seize the currency, you're really seizing the value that the individuals provided in exchange for it -- and the government didn't create that value.​
     
  11. Meta777

    Meta777 Moderator Staff Member

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    I am certainly not trying to suggest that having a higher income than your neighbor is criminal,
    I'm not even trying to use the possibility of that being damaging in some way as justification in and of itself for a progressive tax.

    Simply pointing out that it is not the case that discrimination is necessarily wrong or unjust in all cases,
    and setting some criteria for what I believe would be justifiable discrimination versus unjust discrimination.

    But while we're on the subject of the potential for wealth differences to cause damage,
    wouldn't you agree that at a certain level, very high concentrations of wealth at the top would have a negative impact on society as a whole?

    -Meta
     
  12. Meta777

    Meta777 Moderator Staff Member

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    I only mentioned that because you seemed to base your view upon whether or not a crime was committed.
    But again, it is the law that defines what is and what isn't a crime, so to say that we shouldn't seize something from people who haven't committed any crime doesn't really make sense
    when assuming the law defines their withholding of funds as a crime itself.

    As for the discrimination part, I view this as a discrimination based on need.
    If we are to have any government at all, then someone is going to have to pay for it.
    Part of the government's job is to make sure that everyone has some minimum standard of living,
    and since poorer individuals need their money more than the more well off in order to meet such basic standard of living,
    it makes sense in my view that the government allow these poorer individuals to pay less.

    Its not irrelevant. Since the government created it, it is fully within its rights to define its terms of use,
    just as you or I as individuals will generally have that same right to determine how our creations are used.

    You are right that the government did not necessarily create the value for which the currency represents,
    however, that the currency itself is able to represent legitimate value is value in itself, and value enough that many are willing to make use of it,
    they aren't being forced to use it, at least no more than a laborer is forced to work for a capitalist.

    -Meta​
     
  13. danielpalos

    danielpalos Banned

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    How can anyone complain about economic forms of discrimination under any form of capital based system of markets where it is legal and socially acceptable?
     
  14. Roy L

    Roy L Banned

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    Because it is based on lying that the measure of wealth is income, not wealth. Of course those with high incomes pay the majority of income tax. But most of the people who report high incomes in any given year are not rich. They just happen to have a high income in that year. Calling them "rich" and claiming that a billionaire who had a low income in that year is not "rich" is just lying.
    Right. Typically the rich pay two orders of magnitude less tax than the poor, as a fraction of total assets or net worth.
    Only if you redefine "rich" as, "reporting a high income in that year" instead of "owning a lot of assets," or "having a high net worth."
    No, I'm using the correct and honest definition of "rich."
     
  15. Roy L

    Roy L Banned

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    Or that they get more benefit. Which the rich do, by far, as already proved.

    The two most fundamental and widely accepted principles of sound taxation policy are "ability to pay" and "beneficiary pay." Both are therefore legitimate and morally rightful grounds for "tax discrimination." And not coincidentally, both imply that the rich should be paying far more tax than they do.
    Are you lying that "high-income" = "rich"?​
     
  16. Roy L

    Roy L Banned

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    Who has argued that? Which established principle of sound taxation policy -- i.e., tax "discrimination" -- are you arguing against:
    1. ability to pay
    2. beneficiary pay

    If you are arguing against the principle of ability to pay, then you will need to explain how government can get taxes from people who have no money to pay taxes with, and why it should tax people who have so little money that confiscating it by taxation will drive them into destitution, making them a burden on society, and why it is rightful for government to take so much in taxes from the poor and middle class that they live under constant financial duress, in order to ensure that the rich pay so little tax they don't even notice it.

    If you are arguing against the principle of beneficiary pay, then you will need to explain why the people who get most of the benefit from government spending should not be required to repay the value of what they are taking from society.

    You will forgive my skepticism that you are able to explain these things.
    Wrong. Flat, outright wrong. Whether government created that value depends on whether that value actually was created by the individuals concerned -- i.e., if it was earned -- or WAS in fact created by government, as is the value of privileges such as land titles, IP monopolies, corporate limited liability, bank debt money creation, spectrum allocations, etc., from which the rich get far more benefit than the rest of us, and the great majority of their wealth and incomes.
     
  17. fmw

    fmw Well-Known Member

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    No. It is the concentration of wealth that provides a source for business investment and business is what drives the economy. In fact business is the source of every single nickel of wealth in our society. You only need to look at socialist societies to see what happens when government tries to level things. It ends up hurting everyone. We didn't get to be the wealthiest nation in the world by stealing from the rich.
     
  18. Taxpayer

    Taxpayer Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    Then you offered an irrelevant comment that introduced the topics of crime and damaging action. One that was misleading in appearing to justify this type of discrimination. My comments with regard to crime were only in response to you broaching that topic as possible justification. ​



    (Note: emphasis was yours, not mine)​
     
  19. Meta777

    Meta777 Moderator Staff Member

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    Actually, the high income earners and the very wealthy are generally one in the same.
    The reason is simple, it takes money to make money, and the more you have, the easier it is to make more,
    not to mention that having a high income contributes to ones having more wealth.

    The chart below shows wealth distribution by income class,
    and as you can see, the top 20% of earners own around 85% of the financial wealth in 2009.
    [​IMG]

    Now of course, this is financial wealth and not net worth, but I imagine that there would be similar correlations for that metric for the same reason listed above.



    And all of that said, it should go without saying that the measure of wealth is wealth and not income,
    and I definitely understand that many try to argue something different,
    however, I don't think that makes it right to assume that everyone who mentions income is actually referring to wealth.

    As for who is and isn't considered rich, as I mentioned earlier wealth and income relative to individuals tend to correlate,
    and since it is common practice for people to use either measurement when defining what is and is not rich,
    when the difference between wealth and income is important to some discussion
    I believe the best way to avoid confusion is to simply be clear and clarify which one is referring to.

    -Meta
     
  20. Meta777

    Meta777 Moderator Staff Member

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    I'm am not saying that any level of wealth concentration is necessarily a bad thing,
    but are you suggesting that no matter the level of concentration of wealth,
    that more concentration will always lead to more positive outcomes for society as a whole?

    Also, do you view progressive taxation as stealing from the rich, because I'm pretty sure we've had a progressive tax for nearly a century,
    and on and off again for a bit longer than that even.

    -Meta
     
  21. Meta777

    Meta777 Moderator Staff Member

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    I wasn't using that as a justification for progressive taxation. o_O
    I was also not trying to suggest that someone committing a crime makes it right to discriminate against them,

    Again, I was simply showing that not all types of discrimination are necessarily 'bad' or 'unjust'.
    Something which I believe is relevant to the discussion.
    Do you disagree with that?

    -Meta
     
  22. Roy L

    Roy L Banned

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    No, that is just stupid garbage with no basis in fact. When wealth is concentrated in the hands of the privileged, idle rich, all they do with it is bid up the prices of each other's privileges. The source of productive investment is wealth left in the hands of those who produce wealth, not wealth taken from producers and given to those who already own most of the wealth.
    In fact, that's just more stupid garbage from you. It is the productive who create wealth, not "business."
    Which "socialist" societies would those be? Norway? Canada? Switzerland? Funny how the people who live in those societies don't think they are being hurt and are happier than Americans.
    It is the rich who are doing the stealing. Watch "Inside Job" and try to get a clue.
     
  23. geofree

    geofree Active Member

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    Actually, if we paid off all the externally held debt at par we would be all but broke. The U.S. has become the largest debtor nation to ever exist. We do consume a lot, but produce very little, and that is going to catch up to us sooner or later.

    There was a time in the U.S. when productive work paid a fairer wage. This was a time when you could leave your doors unlocked without fear of theft. When the husband could earn enough through honest work that the wife did not have to work, and could stay at home and take care of family matters. A time when the U.S. ran trade surpluses and was the worlds largest creditor nation. That time was in the 50’s and 60’s. A time when the top income tax rate was over 90%. Soaking the rich (or more specifically the privileged) is what made America rich. When we stopped taxing the rich is when things started going down hill fast.

    Here are the historical income tax rates for the U.S. http://www.taxfoundation.org/publications/show/151.html
     
  24. FreshAir

    FreshAir Well-Known Member Past Donor

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    the rich do not need the extra super-sized Bush tax cuts, there is no reason we can not go back to the tax rates under Reagan

    your trying to say letting the tax cut expire is raising their taxes, it was temporary, they have been getting a freebee all this time, we can't afford it and they do not need it
     
  25. FreshAir

    FreshAir Well-Known Member Past Donor

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