So you ARE calling your imaginary deity a LIAR because in his own WORDS he mentioned those "other gods". Got to wonder how he is going to deal with one of his believers calling him a liar.
There is NO imaginary "creation" either. The Laws of Physics establish that Matter/Energy can neither be created nor destroyed ergo the Universe has ALWAYS existed and WILL always exist in one form or another.
The universe is not eternal. God created it. Creation declares the glory of God because every building has a builder. Why would the same not be true for everything that exists in the universe? Everything in creation has an order and a purpose. I dont agree with what you said about the Law of Physics because its physicalism. God created matter and energy. All matter and energy that exists comes from what God created. https://carm.org/what-physicalism The scientific law that you mentioned doesnt mean evolution is true. https://carm.org/second-law-thermodynamics-and-evolution
Kneejerk Science Denialism does NOT alter REALITY one iota! WRONG again! YOUR imaginary deity FAILS the Omnipotence Paradox ERGO he did NOT "create" the universe and NEITHER does he exist. The Omnipotence Paradox means that if your imaginary deity "created" something that he CANNOT destroy therefore he CANNOT be omnipotent because there is something that he cannot do. Since the Omnipotence Paradox establishes that your imaginary deity LACKS the ability to destroy something that he allegedly created the obverse is also true because it means that he is INCAPABLE of creating the matter of the Universe since it CONTAINS matter that he CANNOT destroy THEREFORE he NEVER "created" the Universe. The Laws of Physics have WITHSTOOD all of the attempts by theists and are still IN EFFECT throughout the universe which is a whole lot more than can be said for your imaginary "deity" and his dust spec of a religion in COSMIC terms.
The site you post from has no academic or theological credibility - as evidenced in this case by quoting from the NT in relation to a question about OT beliefs in a divine Pantheon (or not) - but is generally horrible. So when God says "Thou Shalt have no other God's before me" - and hands this command down to the Israelites - declaring himself to be their personal God - as per Deut 32:8 - What did the people receiving this command think it meant ? This is the question being asked - So the NT can not help us. The people of Moses believed in a divine Pantheon - They were not "Monotheists" .. nor were they Polytheists however. They believed in the existence of other Gods - but they were only to worship YHWH - something known as monolateralism. Other divinities are mentioned many times in the OT - particularly in older versions.. pre- common era texts - such as the Septuagint (LXX). Some of this was wiped clean from the modern text - but some still remains.
God gave that commandment because the cultures in the Holy Land were polytheists. The First Commandment doesnt imply that there are other gods. https://carm.org/why-should-i-only-believe-in-one-god
Not sure why you posted all that cut and paste stuff - as it does not relate to the convo. Once again - God was speaking to a particular audience. An audience that knew the difference between the word "God" - and Gods. In this command he tells the people not to have any other God(s) - plural - before him. Who are you to claim "OH" God didn't mean there were not other God's" .. unless you are intending to speak for the Most High .. I can see how this can be taken in a non plural sense - but, then we have the rest of the Bible that does relate to this question to consider. That which your original source completely ignored - aka - The Sin of Omission. The OT mentions other divinities on numerous occasions - so there is every reason to read the text as is .. in plural form. Keep in mind that the Israelites worshiped one of the "Sons of God" - just as we worship the "Son of God" . YHWH was one of the many Sons of the Most High - as per Urgaritic Literature. Over time - just as Jesus .. YHWH usurped the position of the Most High.
There is a difference between God and gods. The Bible uses lowercase gods when talking about polytheism. God meant not to believe in false beliefs about the supernatural. The Greek gods dont exist but they represent people suppressing the desire to follow the one true God and desiring to follow idols.
First off - I have studied this way way way more than you - and you are simply wrong. Wrong from a Biblical Standpoint, Wrong from a Historical and Archaeological standpoint - and arguably wrong from a Theological Standpoint. - and your claim in relation to polytheism is abject nonsense - in light of the fact that we have a translator translating a translation of a translation where the person 1000 years later has little clue about the perspective of the writer. .. and they simply don't mean what you claim. When you go back to the original Hebrew you find the Name of some of these God's used... including the Most High - which is not YHWH. Psalm 82 being one example where "El - Enlil - Elyon" The most high - is depicted as head of the council.. YHWH is prosecuting the other God - Sons of God - of which YHWH is one. Deut 32:8 When the Most High gave the nations their inheritance, when he divided humankind he set the bounds of the people according to the number of the children of El, and the Lord’s (YHWH) portion was his people Jacob, the lot of his inheritance. Deut 32:43 "O heavens, rejoice with Him Bow to Him, all divinities Bow to Him, all sons of the divine O nations, rejoice with His People And let all angels of the divine Strengthen themselves in Him. For He’ll avenge the blood His sons, Be vengeful And wreak vengeance And recompense justice On His foes, Requite those who reject him and the Lord will and Cleanse His people’s land" Now go to your favorite modern translation and post what is stated in Deut 32:43 .. and explain to me what you think happened to the rest of the passage. The above is from the LXX - OT version that the early Christians were using.
Yahweh is God's name. Just because people who believed in paganism also called their deities by the same name that the Jews in the Old Testament called the one true God doesnt mean that Yahweh isn't God. https://carm.org/what-real-name-god-yhwh-jehovah-yahweh
I'll tell you whats even funnier. in fact I am rolling, because it proved you wrong, joke all you want.
The Bible says that the Messiah would bring in a New Covenant. The God of the Bible is different from other gods because He is the Messiah.
You are posting cut outs from desperate apology web sites - of which there are hundreds. Wouldn't be so bad if these articles made sense - but they don't .. that you have yet to figure this out is a concern. When considering questions of the OT - I often start with What do the Jews believe .. after all - it is their book. But we are not talking about the name of the God of Moses - and the term YHWH can mean many things but this is down a rabbit hole. We are talking about who is the Chief God - Gods .. and other divinities - and you are in avoidance mode. I posted some scripture which you are avoiding - and you failed the simple directive - and to answer the question related to that directive. So please post Deut 32:43 from the modern text of your choosing - stop running from scripture - and explain to me what the differences are.
Not sure why you are brining Jesus into the conversation. The OT audience knew not of any Jesus .. nor believed in him as a God - least not revealed to us in OT scripture. They did however believe in a number of Sons of the Most High ... EL - of which YHWH was one .. I supposed of we took the depiction of Jesus in John at face value - pre-existent with the Father - we could say that perhaps Jesus was one of El's 70 sons. EL - God of Abraham - God who dwells in the Mountain - El Shaddai - "The Most High" - The Creator, The Father - and various other epithets you would recognize ... were you to read the OT. This is what the Bible Tells us - This is what "The Encyclopedia Britannica" Tells us - What Modern Biblical Scholarship tells us - along with biblical history and archaeology and theology.
The Book of Job mentions Jesus indirectly. Job 9:32–35 The Old Testament mentions Jesus in the verses about Man of Sorrows, Prince of Peace, and almah, and being the Everlasting Father.
Isaiah 53 4 Surely he hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows: yet we did esteem him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted. 5 But he was wounded for our transgressions, he was bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace was upon him; and with his stripes we are healed. 6 All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every one to his own way; and the LORD hath laid on him the iniquity of us all. Isaiah 9 6 For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.
There is no direct mention anywhere in the OT of Jesus - and this diversion has nothing to do with the beliefs of the ancient Israelites in a Divine Pantheon - or references to other divinities in the OT. Good you brought up Job though .. as some of these other divinities are mentioned in Job - Satan among them .. also referred to as a son of God -
I agree - Ps 82:6 says - "I have said, Ye [are] gods; and all of you [are] children of the most High" https://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/OTpdf/psa82.pdf In this passage YHWH - is referring to the other sons of God in the Pantheon - The "Most High" / "Supreme one" identified directly as El in verse 1.
Regarding what I said about Job, Jesus didn't just die to give us an eternal future, but Jesus is also the mediator and intermediary between God and humanity.
